will brinson: ferguson

Not to open a large can of worms here, but according to 100% of the NT manuscripts, when quoting from the OT, neither Jesus nor His inspired apostles used YHWH. Every one of them used KURIOS (Lord). So, if replacing YHWH with ADONAI (Hebrew for Lord) is profaning it, then Jesus profaned the name of God. Since Jesus called YHWH "Lord" (see Matthew 4) when quoting a passage that used YHWH, then why do you insist that when someone does the same thing today, they are profaning the name of God? BCobb

Cobb78,
I think you might be suprised if you were to check the Aramaic Text of the NT, and I do not mean Norton', Etheridge', Murdock', Lamsa', or Bauscher' so-called English translations thereof, as all 5 are erroneous when it comes to the Aramaic Text !!!

Oh, and while you brought up the subject of W W J[i.e.-Y] D, (ANSEWR): Really, He would use His Name, not some erroneous form thereof. Same with His Father' Name. REALLY !!!
Even the oldest fragments of the Greek NT used PLACE HOLDERS for The Anointed One' Name, not the erroneous Greek translation/form that is found in the Greek texts since Constantine started his church/circus, whereby having all the text become antinomian, as well as remove as much Hebraicness form them - to help support his religion.

<sub>There are writings from the 2nd century  that have quotes from the Peshitta.

There are early Aramaic testamonies that claim a copy of the Peshitta existed as early as 78AD.

There are testamonies from early church fathers that the Gospel of Mattith-Yahu was written in Hebrew and the same goes for Sha'ul' writing. The early church fathers testify that "Sha'ul wrote in his native tongue and others translated them the best they could".

Wow, really? Yes really!

Oh, and there are more problems with the 4th century Greek Text than one could shake a stick at!
Owe Vey.</sub>