3 replies to this topic

[patchworkid]

Hi all,

I have a question about old and new testament definition.
Example: the word abide. Is the definition the same in the old testament as it is in the new testament?

thanks

[Tim Butterfield]

I have a question about old and new testament definition.
Example: the word abide. Is the definition the same in the old testament as it is in the new testament?

 

Part of the question is for which word?  There are 11 words in the KJV Old Testament Hebrew that were translated as abide in some form.  There were 4 words in the KJV New Testament Greek that were translated as abide.

 

But either way the answer is that in every case the people who translated the scriptures felt that the English word abide was, in that context the best word to convey the meaning of the original text.

 

But then we must also take into account the meaning of Abide: (Oxford Dictionaries)

 

abide

Syllabification: a·bide

Pronunciation: /əˈbīd

 

/

verb

Get more examples obey, observe, follow, keep to, hold to, conform to, adhere to, stick to, stand by, act in accordance with, uphold, heed, accept, go along with, acknowledge, respect, defer to

View synonyms

Get more examples tolerate, bear, stand, put up with, endure, take, countenance

informal stomach

formal brook

archaic suffer

View synonyms

[APsit190]

Hi all,

I have a question about old and new testament definition.
Example: the word abide. Is the definition the same in the old testament as it is in the new testament?

thanks

 
Hi Niobi,
Well, in short, both yes and no.
 
Now for the longer answer.
When it comes to both interpreting and translating from Greek and Hebrew there are "rules" that one has to adhere to. One of the fundamental rules is that it's not a case of one size fits all whether it is just Greek and/or whether its just Hebrew. So, with regard to the way a word is defined is dependent on the way the word is used in context to the subject matter. If you try to make it a case of where a word has the same meaning right across the board irrespective of the context it is used in, then you're going to find yourself up the proverbial creek without a paddle to steer a sinking canoe to safely. In other words, you're going to find yourself making huge mistakes.
 
So what does all this mean? Well, it all has to do with grammar, stuff like the Case used for the word, the Stem for which the word is used, whether it is literal, analogical, or metaphorical. All of these factors come in to play to determine what a word can mean in either or both Hebrew and Greek. So with that it simply comes down to, as seen in the short answer, "Well, in short, both yes and no."

 

To give you an idea of what I am talking about, and using your example of "abide," there are, going by what I can see, three Hebrew words for that word, each having differing Stems to each of the words, thus giving variations to the way that word is used and defined. For example, just on the Hebrew word, Yâshab (H3427), there are five stems used in that word, and dependent on the context of the way the word is used will determine which stem is applicable to its meaning. How that will correlate to the New Testament will be dependent on the morphological use of that word in the Greek.

 

This may not be the answer you were hoping for, however, given the kind of work you do in your studies of Scripture, I think this is the answer you need if you want accuracy in your cross referencing between Old and New Testaments.

 

Blessings,

Edited by APsit190, 10 August 2014 - 05:10 PM.

[Tim Butterfield]

Thanks, APsit190, I thought that I had included the caveat that since it is a verb most of the 11 Hebrew words would be conjugations of the same word.