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Out of curiosity, what is your justification for translating 'Yah' as 'Jehovah' and not 'Yahweh'?

Hi Raschau, thanks for your question.  In the Aramaic Maryah (literally Lord Yah) is an exact equivalent for the Hebrew Yahweh.  In English it can either be written Yahweh or Jehovah, which is the same word just a different pronunciation of the same four Hebrew letters.  The reason that David Bauscher chose to use Jehovah in the translation instead of Yahweh, was that he believes it to be more readily identifiable by the general English speaking population as the Proper Noun for God.

Blessings,

Tim.

the letter "j" wasn't invented until the 1600's.  while it may be more "readily identifiable" it is only because of the anti-semitism of catholic so-called "scholars" who pushed the unbiblical translation of the Name of God.  also, askenazi jews at or around the same period began pushing the use of the "v" instead of the "w" as a way of "obscuring" the name of God.  because in their error they felt the name of God was too "sacred" to be spoken in it's pure form, especially by gentiles.  when in fact, all through the Word His name is declared over and over again to be praised, exalted, extolled, shouted from house tops and mountain tops, and anything, BUT "obscured" or silenced. words like "god" and "lord" unfortunately can and have often been used to denote pagan entities.  lord was a primary name for baal. 

Lorin Thomason if you want to fight about the origin of the Germanic letter W and the V or the Baal Vs Adonai then is there this topic.

http://www.biblesupp...lation-reviews/

Or about the origin of the Upsilon (the letter Y/U) Vs the I and J.

Or about why the REAL Judaists rather not use the Tetragrammaton.

I warn you only once after second fake review. (You did the same thing by the Restored Holy Bible e-Sword download) while it did respond on the first fake review.

The Aramaic never used Lord Yah; in fact, the Aramaic used מַרְיָא [MaRYaA] the final Alef is the emphatic Alef- which showed definiteness in Aramaic. The noun is from the Aramaic מָרֵא [MaReA] and meant Lord. Marya [never MarYah] meant The Lord. You can see this word used in Daniel 4:16 with the 1st personal pronoun suffix וְאָמַר מָרְאִי [and he said, My Lord- weAmar Mar'i] and in the construct in Daniel 5:23 וְעַ֣ל מָרֵֽא־שְׁמַיָּ֣א [we'al mare[construct] shemaya [absolute with emphatic Alef]- and against the lord of the heavens]. Anyone who claims that MaRYaA is the Aramaic for MaRYaH is intentionally misleading those who have no knowledge of Aramaic.

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@Yaaqov ben Yisrael

"Anyone who claims that MaRYaA is the Aramaic for MaRYaH is intentionally misleading those who have no knowledge of Aramaic."

First, you drastically overstated your case here, and are wrong to impute motive where you have no clue of it.

But moreover, you are simply wrong anyway, as "Marya" is used everywhere in the Peshitta Aramaic Tanakh version where the Hebrew reads "Y-H-V-H"--over 6,000 times.  The Peshitta Tanakh is believed by some scholars to have been produced by Jews--either in Edessa or Babylon, and they would know what "marya" means better than us (i.e. *you*).

And an Aramaic word ending in alap/aleph doesn't necessarily make it emphatic, as though it should read "THE Lord."  But the best proof that "y-a" in Aramaic equals "y-h" in Hebrew is found in Exodus 15:2 of the Peshitta Tanakh itself.  This is the first place in the Hebrew Bible where the short form "Yah" is used, and the Peshitta Tanakh actually reads "Yah" (y-h) just like the Hebrew.  (Look it up for yourself).

From this point on, however, the Peshitta Tanakh uses "marya" everywhere the Hebrew reads "Y-H-V-H" or even just "Y-H."  So, tone it down, and study before claiming everyone else is wrong.

Marya- spelled with the final Alef- means The Lord in Aramaic [with the emphatic Alef and not written with a final He]. It is used for YHWH the same way Kurios is used in the LXX. The fact that it is used this way does not mean it is equal to YHWH. For anyone wishing to see proof of my original post, please follow the link to Comprehensive Aramaic Lexicon provided by Hebrew Union College-Jewish Institute of Religion.

http://cal.huc.edu/g...20010204&word=8

Exodus 15:2 is written in the Peshitta

ܬܩܝܦܐ ܘܡܫܒܚܐ܂ ܝܗ ܡܪܝܐ ܘܗܘܼܐ ܠܢ ܦܪܘܩܐ܂ ܗܢܘ ܐܠܗܼܝ ܐܿܫܒܚܝܘܗܝ ܐܠܗܗ ܕܐܒܝܼ ܐܪܡܪܡܝܘܗܝ܂

The first form is ܝܗ which is יה in Hebrew and is followed by ܡܪܝܐ which is מריא. The first is actually the Yah and the second is the MarYaA- with the final emphatic Alef. Again, anyone claiming that MarYaA [with the emphatic Alef] is somehow MarYah and means Lord Yah is being misleading. Not only is transliterating MarYaA as MarYaH incorrect, but it is plain deceptive- it intentionally leads the reader into thinking this transliteration is correctly representing the text of the Peshitta.

Terrified translated confusion in screenshot VERSE 10 must say "is NOT of God" -

ESV 1Jn 3:10  By this it is evident who are the children of God, and who are the children of the devil: whoever does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor is the one who does not love his brother. 

KJV 1Jn 3:10  In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother. 

TLV 1Jn 3:10  It is clear who are the children of God and who are the children of the devil by this—anyone who does not act righteously or love his brother is not of God.