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Download Jonathan Mitchell's New Testament MS1

This is a serious study bible for those that want the clearest understanding and nuances of the original language.  At first this translation may seem too wordy.  Get used to the structure of this New Testament.  Read the basic text of each verse and then study all the alternate translations, notes etc in the parentheses and brackets. You will be left with a deeper, richer and fuller understanding of the original text.  

This is a prime example of what not to read!

http://greater-emmanuel.org/jm/

In Revelation 1:1 he wrote,

"1. An unveiling of Jesus Christ (or: A disclosure from Jesus [the] Anointed; A revelation which pertains to Jesus Christ) which God gave by Him (in Him; for Him; to Him) to point out to His slaves that which is necessary to come to be (to be birthed) in swiftness (= speedily) [note: this phrase means either the manner in which events will happen, or that it is quickly going to happen]. And sending [Him] as an emissary (or: representative), through means of His agent (or: messenger) He indicated [it] by signs (or: symbols) to (or: in; for) His slave John,"

Ἀποκάλυψις      Ἰησοῦ      Χριστοῦ     ἣν     ἔδωκεν      αὐτῷ     ὁ     θεός       δεῖξαι     τοῖς     δούλοις     αὐτοῦ      ἃ        δεῖ       γενέσθαι     ἐν       τάχει           καὶ      ἐσήμανεν

Revelation         Jesus       Christ,    which    gave         him       -     God,       show      the     servants      him,     what    must    take place    in    quickness     and    he signified

ἀποστείλας        διὰ        τοῦ        ἀγγέλου        αὐτοῦ        τῷ        δούλῳ        αὐτοῦ        Ἰωάννῃ

having sent        by         the          angel          of him      to the     servant       of him,         John,

You are adding to the Revelation of Christ Jesus that was given to John.

Revelation 22:19

καὶ ἐάν τις ἀφαιρῇ ἀπὸ τῶν λόγων βίβλου τῆς προφητείας ταύτης ἀφαιρήσει ὁ θεὸς τὸ μέρος αὐτοῦ ἀπὸ βίβλου τῆς ζωῆς καὶ ἐκ τῆς πόλεως τῆς ἁγίας καὶ τῶν γεγραμμένων ἐν βιβλίῳ τούτῳ

People like you need to stop writing your own personal interpretation of scripture if you are not going to quote from the actual manuscript.

All people like you do is corrupt the minds of the ignorant of aren't educated enough to see that you are a liar and deceiver.

Before anybody accuses me of being to hard, I suggest you read Exodus 23:1.

2 Timothy 3:16, scripture is for reproof and correction and I am correcting you for your error.

If you were a true practicing Christian you "never" would of written such a false interpretation, but, you did and whats done is done.

People like you like to cash in on the name "Christian" anyway you can.

I will not recommend your corrupt interpretation to anybody.

If anybody should even dare to say that I hate my brother in Christ so therefore I am in danger, remember this, my brother is not a liar and a liar is not my brother.

You take a good hard look at what he wrote for Matthew 1:1 and Revelation 1:1 and compare that to the Stephanus Textus Receptus of 1550 or even the Westcott and Hort of 1881

and you will see he has added quite a bit of his own wording. And I am not talking about playing around with synonyms just to be different, I am writing that he has added words that are not even in the manuscripts and I showed above.

One example is that he added in his version of Revelation 1:1 the word "signs". Signs? Where is the word signs in any of the manuscripts for Revelation 1:1? WHERE?

I would like to know what manuscript your false interpretation came from?

Can you even read Greek?

If not then how did you interpret your version?

Or did you just do what so many false Christians do now adays to cash in and just grab a Bible and change the words however you feel like it and get some corrupt publisher to spread your cancer to others?

I have more respect for a Judean scribe who can read and write Hebrew and then write the whole Torah by his own hand than I do for all you modern day corrupt people adding and removing from the manuscripts.

SteveD,

ἐσήμανεν

he signified

Or literally, showed in signs.

Please look at your Greek and KJV and you'll see that it is there.

Even if some of your accusations were true, the Scripture speak of "speaking the truth IN LOVE."  Your post above does not follow that verse.

Steve, it might help to re-read or read the explanation above on this version.  The King James adds MANY words.  The key here is to do a deeper study on the word signified.  This version gives alternate renderings to enhance understanding.  This rendering of Rev. 1:1 is certainly true to the original text and, frankly, if you want to do a direct word for word translation into English, you would not be happy with the results.

Ah Steve,

                 how one pictures you fulminating in that righteous wrath of the Pharisee. The adding and subtracting my dear boy really is about all those traditions that every religious grouping brings to bear on their interpretation, and to borrow of Nietzsche there are only interpretations. Now what our brother as done here, for God is our Father, has simply tried to show the full range of possible renderings, at the least one is enabled to see how that 'bias born before I began to think' (Yeats) operates in our selection of meaning. Think the word morphe translated in the NIV as nature which to follow through logically would insist that the some Men are born with a servant 'nature' as distinct from some imagined other 'nature' applicable to humanity. Clearly then the insistence on using classical Greek as the meaning of the word is absurd and our KJV brothers were correct to use the word form implying as it does outward appearance or station. Which of course has one wondering are the NIV translators guiilty of your charge ?